General Logos questions.

[APAK]

Hey Carlos, I was referring to John 1:1b (and the word was with God) in the sense of being with God in heaven (resurrection/ascension) can possibly line up with John 1:18b (the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. I'm just saying that it's worth considering, along with all the other scriptures I brought out regarding Pros ton theon and pro ton Patera and again if you see the context there, you will see that there is a common denominator. Jesus. The word. Now, as of now, as I explained (hopefully) I lean towards John 1:1b as the word (Jesus) that was with God during his life, ministry and resurrection. Now, I agree with the lexical definitions that you pointed out concerning the "word" especially showing up as a "verbal expression" in the book of John but there's one thing you have to consider; in order for there to be a verbal expression, there quite simply has to be a person/s to express that verbal expression. Otherwise, there would never exist a verbal expression in the first place. That person mainly in the book of John is Jesus. This is why I believe he is the word (and that the father expressed his words in the man Jesus, also Deuteronomy 18:18, Acts 3:22) and was "with" God at the time of his life and ministry/resurrection and of course, now. Just as Moses was with God. I never said that I am equating Moses with a type of Christ (although there is an argument to be had) I was only expounding upon John 1:1b and the "with" issue.
Now, I'm not sure if you've listened to this. If you haven't I hope you do. Bill Schlegel and Rivers give a commentary on John 1:1b and a little bit beyond. This is where I currently stand if you still don't know where I'm coming from

I totally disagree with your basic premise(s) and so I cannot pursue you down these rabbit holes, sorry.

1. Logos cannot never mean Yahshua/Jesus. Believing so would be at least intellectual dishonesty.

2. You have created your own extra-biblical context, not in scripture in John 1, to fit in Jesus as the (W)word.

3. The only begotten Son is in the heart (bosom) of his Father and therefore the only one that can declare Him. Jesus has his Father's Spirit within his own (spirit) to possess/understand his Father's mind and thus be his Father's personal logos/word (John 1:14). And he spoke his Father's thoughts and expressions many times during his ministry as in the Gospel writers reports.

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You addresses me as Carlos. Sorry, I'm not Carlos I'm afraid. You have the wrong person.

Bless you.

 

[McSquidly]

I totally disagree with your basic premise(s) and so I cannot pursue you down these rabbit holes, sorry.

1. Logos cannot never mean Yahshua/Jesus. Believing so would be at least intellectual dishonesty.

2. You have created your own extra-biblical context, not in scripture in John 1, to fit in Jesus as the (W)word.

3. The only begotten Son is in the heart (bosom) of his Father and therefore the only one that can declare Him. Jesus has his Father's Spirit within his own (spirit) to possess/understand his Father's mind and thus be his Father's personal logos/word (John 1:14). And he spoke his Father's thoughts and expressions many times during his ministry as in the Gospel writers reports.

//

You addresses me as Carlos. Sorry, I'm not Carlos I'm afraid. You have the wrong person.

Bless you.

Oh, ok. I see you chimed in there. I assumed I was replying to Carlos. You did say that you spent some time down under and I know Carlos did as well so it threw me off. Now that I know you're not Carlos and you obviously know that I didn't know so there's no real need for us to go down that "rabbit hole" as you call it