General Who is the Person seen on the heavenly throne in Ezekiel 1 and Isaiah 6?

stignatius

Member
Buddy
Oct 15, 2020
51
23
8
John 1:18: "No one has ever seen God; the only begotten Son, who is at the Father's side, he has made him known."

John 12:36-42: "When Jesus had said these things, he departed and hid himself from them. Though he had done so many signs before them, they still did not believe in him, so that the word spoken by the prophet Isaiah might be fulfilled:

“Lord, who has believed what he heard from us,
and to whom has the arm of the Lord been revealed?”
Therefore they could not believe.

For again Isaiah said,

“He has blinded their eyes
and hardened their heart,
lest they see with their eyes,
and understand with their heart, and turn,
and I would heal them.”

Isaiah said these things because he saw his glory and spoke of him. Nevertheless, many even of the authorities believed in him."

Definitely not impossible to reconcile these verses with biblical unitariansim. But, the scriptures do consistently paint God as being invisible and yet visible. John 1 is making the case that past revelations of God were through the Word and that the same Word appeared in human form.
 
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Eyesontheprize

Member
Bible Challenge
Oct 17, 2020
59
54
18
John 1:18: "No one has ever seen God; the only begotten Son, who is at the Father's side, he has made him known."

John 12:36-42: "When Jesus had said these things, he departed and hid himself from them. Though he had done so many signs before them, they still did not believe in him, so that the word spoken by the prophet Isaiah might be fulfilled:

“Lord, who has believed what he heard from us,
and to whom has the arm of the Lord been revealed?”
Therefore they could not believe.

For again Isaiah said,

“He has blinded their eyes
and hardened their heart,
lest they see with their eyes,
and understand with their heart, and turn,
and I would heal them.”

Isaiah said these things because he saw his glory and spoke of him. Nevertheless, many even of the authorities believed in him."

Definitely not impossible to reconcile these verses with biblical unitariansim. But, the scriptures do consistently paint God as being invisible and yet visible. John 1 is making the case that past revelations of God were through the Word and that the same Word appeared in human form.
Something that was revealed to me today (I am still trying to figure out what I now believe ... exjw) but if you read Genesis 3:8 it says they heard the voice (aka: the word) of Jehovah God walking and they hid from his face/presence (which would mean they saw him) and would be another example of the word or Jesus also being identified as Jehovah.
 

benadam1974

Well-known member
Nov 15, 2020
753
305
63
John 1:18: "No one has ever seen God; the only begotten Son, who is at the Father's side, he has made him known."

John 12:36-42: "When Jesus had said these things, he departed and hid himself from them. Though he had done so many signs before them, they still did not believe in him, so that the word spoken by the prophet Isaiah might be fulfilled:

“Lord, who has believed what he heard from us,
and to whom has the arm of the Lord been revealed?”
Therefore they could not believe.

For again Isaiah said,

“He has blinded their eyes
and hardened their heart,
lest they see with their eyes,
John 1:18: "No one has ever seen God; the only begotten Son, who is at the Father's side, he has made him known."

John 12:36-42: "When Jesus had said these things, he departed and hid himself from them. Though he had done so many signs before them, they still did not believe in him, so that the word spoken by the prophet Isaiah might be fulfilled:

“Lord, who has believed what he heard from us,
and to whom has the arm of the Lord been revealed?”
Therefore they could not believe.

For again Isaiah said,

“He has blinded their eyes
and hardened their heart,
lest they see with their eyes,
and understand with their heart, and turn,
and I would heal them.”

Isaiah said these things because he saw his glory and spoke of him. Nevertheless, many even of the authorities believed in him."

Definitely not impossible to reconcile these verses with biblical unitariansim. But, the scriptures do consistently paint God as being invisible and yet visible. John 1 is making the case that past revelations of God were through the Word and that the same Word appeared in human form.

and understand with their heart, and turn,
and I would heal them.”

Isaiah said these things because he saw his glory and spoke of him. Nevertheless, many even of the authorities believed in him."

Definitely not impossible to reconcile these verses with biblical unitariansim. But, the scriptures do consistently paint God as being invisible and yet visible. John 1 is making the case that past revelations of God were through the Word and that the same Word appeared in human form.
Does this follow?
1. God cannot be seen.
2. Jesus was seen.
3. Jesus is God.
 
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