Article Texts Misconstrued to Imply That Jesus Is Part of a Trinity

Texts Misconstrued to ​

Imply That Jesus Is Part of a Trinity ​

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In Chapter 5 we examined the many translation issues in the New Testament showing that with correct translation such verses do not show Jesus as being the Almighty God. Briefly, these passages were:

1 John 5:7: The forged and spurious text: “For there are three that bear witness in heaven: the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit; and these three are one.”

John 1:18 should be rendered: “No one has seen God at any time. The only [pref. ‘unique’] begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him” (NKJV).

Romans 9:5 should be rendered: “…theirs the patriarchs, and from them, according to the flesh, is the Messiah. God who is over all be blessed forever. Amen” (NAB, Moffatt, RSV). Or: “The patriarchs are theirs, and from them by natural descent came the Messiah. May God supreme above all, be blessed forever! Amen” (REB, Barclay).

Titus 2:13 should be rendered: “...as we await the blessed hope, the appearance of the glory of the great God and of our savior Jesus Christ” (NAB, Moffatt, Rotherham, Philips, KJV)”

Peter 1:1 should be rendered: “Through the righteousness of God and our saviour Jesus Christ” (The KJV, Weymouth, and Rotherham footnote). Philips says: “our God, and saviour Jesus Christ.”


John 1:1-3. Here the best grammar is that of the REB which renders it as: “and what God was the Word was” However, because “the word” is God’s word i.e. God’s self-expression or self-revelation and not a person, there should be no capital letter for “word.” Also, in this context the traditional rendering “him” should be “it” so that the full meaning would give the rendering: “In the beginning was the logos—the self-revelation of God. This self-revelation was integral to God, and what God was, the self-revelation was. This was integral to God in the beginning. Everything came to be through it...” or similar.


Acts 20:28: should be rendered: “...to shepherd the church of God that he obtained with the blood of his own Son” (NRSV).

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In the following passages there are no translation issues, but these are cases of misinterpretation or misapplication because of:

• Failure to understand the meaning of certain Greek words. Or
• Failure to note the context. Or
• Failure to note the parallel clear texts that show how the terms are being used.

Is Jesus One Essence with the Father?​

John 10:30: “I and the Father are one (Gk eis).”

Here the Greek word eis means “one thing” and not “one person.” So this text does not mean ‘being of one substance’ but ‘being united in will and purpose.’ In this context it means that the Father and the Son are one in respect to the preservation of the sheep. The phrase is used similarly in John 17:11 in reference to Christians, “…that they may be one as we are one.” Certainly, Christians do not become one in essence with God, so why would John 10:30 mean that Jesus is of one essence with God?

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John 5:18: “He...was calling God his own Father, making himself equal with God.”

However, Jesus, in verse 16, simply shows that he is subordinate to the Father and therefore not of one essence with Him. By calling God his own Father Jesus simply showed that he was God’s Son and heir (Gal.4:1) and therefore was claiming God-given authority to function representatively for God. One cannot be “equal with God” and actually be God unless this makes a second Almighty God, which would be polytheism.

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John 14:9: “He who has seen me has seen the Father.”

If taken in a literalistic sense this would mean that Jesus claimed to be the Father, a view that no Trinitarian holds because they view Jesus as being ‘God the Son.’ However, “no man has seen God at any time” (John 1:18).

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Colossians 2:9:

“For in him the whole fullness of deity [the Godhead in KJV and NKJV] dwells bodily.” This no more turns Jesus into God than it does Christians who also “may be filled with all the fullness of God” (Eph. 3:19). A clearer rendering of the Greek in 2:9 comes from Anthony Buzzard where he expresses it as: “For in the Messiah the entire fullness of God’s character and mind dwell bodily.”

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Matthew 1:23: “God with us.”

This is an apt title for the Messiah through whom God is working to reconcile mankind to Himself. A similar phrase is used in Proverbs 30:1 of Ithiel whose name means “God is with me.”

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Is Jesus the “I am” of Exodus 3:14?​

In Exodus 3:14, many translations read: “God said to Moses, I AM WHO I AM.” So, does this mean that Jesus is the Almighty God because he said “I am” on numerous occasions. For example, in John 18:6: “Jesus said to them [those who came to arrest him], ‘I am he’, they drew back and fell to the ground.” So, Trinitarians use this event to try to prove that Jesus used the “I AM” phrase of Exodus 3:14 for the purpose of miraculously bowling over the crowd of soldiers. So, this is supposedly proof that he must be God Almighty. However, if this was the reason then one must wonder why the soldiers got up and continued to arrest God. In fact, Jesus used the phrase “I am he (Gk ego eimi)” on numerous occasions and with no powerful effect on those to whom he said it. A possible reason for the crowd falling to the ground was that they were aware of the rumours that Jesus could be the resurrected John the Baptist or Elijah or Jeremiah. If they had Elijah in mind, they could have been in fear of fire being called down on them as happened to the soldiers sent to arrest Elijah (2 Kings 1:9-12). Once they realized they were not in such danger they carried out their orders.

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John 8:58: “...before Abraham was born, I am he (Gk ego eimi).” However, Bultmann advises that: “We should reject the idea that ‘ego eimi’ means ‘I (Jesus) am God.”’

Is Jesus God Almighty Because He is​

“the First and the Last”​

In Revelation 1:17b-18 we note that Jesus said that he died—something that God, in fact, cannot do. He said: “I [Jesus] am the first and the last, and the living one. I died, and am alive forevermore, and I have the keys of death and of Hades.” The title “the first and the last” is first applied to Yahweh in Isaiah 44:6 and 48:12. However, as God’s representative, Jesus legitimately uses this title of himself in Revelation 1:17, and so indicating that he is the beginning and the end of God’s purpose for mankind (Heb. 12:2) which also indicates Christ’s unchangeableness as Lord Messiah (Heb. 13:8). From this fact some Trinitarians make the connection that Jesus must, therefore, be Yahweh and that in Revelation 22:13 it is also Jesus speaking as Yahweh—a connection that is difficult for those Trinitarians who do not propose that Jesus is Yahweh. However, Jesus’ statement in Revelation 1:17, 18 concerns his being “the first and the last” with reference to his resurrection because he said “I died, and am alive forevermore.” This shows that he is not God Almighty who is immortal and therefore can never die. Therefore, Jesus is “the first and the last” in a sense different to that of God’s being “the first and the last” (22:13). Furthermore, this title of “the first and the last” is similar but different to God’s title of “the alpha and the omega” in Revelation 1:8, and 21:6, and 22:13.

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In Revelation 22:13 to Whom Does the Title​

“the Alpha and Omega” Apply?​

The title “Alpha and Omega” (the first and last letters of the Greek alphabet) appears only in Revelation 1:8, 21:6 and 22:13. In 1:8 it clearly applies to “the Lord God…the Almighty” and not to Jesus who is shown as a separate entity from God throughout Revelation. For instance, in 21:6 it clearly applies to “He who sits on the throne” (verse 5) and not to the Lamb. However, in Revelation 22:13 this title appears to be applied to Jesus because he is God’s representative. In fact, this is the only place which contains all three phrases of “the Alpha and Omega, the first and the last, the beginning and the end.” Nevertheless, this does not make him God Almighty!

Along with the phrase “the first and the last” the Jews understood the term “alpha and Omega” simply to mean “the whole extent of a thing i.e. in its entirety—a totality,” or that which contains everything else. In the context of the statements in Revelation it gives complete assurance that God is “all in all” and that He has the total power and control to bring about His complete purpose for the world. Certainly, at first glance the phrase, “I am the Alpha and the Omega” in 22:13 appears to be the words of Jesus because of the earlier phrase, “I am coming quickly” (22:7, 12) and so this is presented as such in the many red-letter Bibles. Nevertheless, there are two possible answers to this issue:

1. The phrase does apply to Jesus because divine titles have been conferred upon him. He is indeed “the first and the last” because he is “the one who pioneered the faith and brought it to completion.” (Heb.12:2). This is similar to the fact that Jesus has been granted God’s title of “King of kings and Lord of lords” expressed in Revelation 17:14. Nevertheless, no such titles ever mean that Jesus is the Lord God Almighty, but rather that he is “the Lord Messiah” as God’s primary representative and is “the first and the last” who, in contrast to God, died (1:17) and was resurrected. If this is the case then the phrase “I am coming quickly” refers to Jesus as going into action on God’s behalf.
2. Because Revelation 22:6 says, “And he said to me…” with a reference to “God’s angel” there is a connection back to one of the seven angels (21:9) as the speaker. There appears to be no change of speaker after 22:6 until Jesus begins to speak in 22:16. Therefore, all the words in 22:7, 12 and 13 may be those of God’s angel who evidently is speaking as His representative, as if God Himself i.e. the Father were speaking. This would be an example of the biblical principle of agency just as the angel of God spoke as God in Genesis 31:11, 13 and had authority to act for God (Ex. 23:1). So, then it appears to be the Father who is “the Alpha and Omega” in 22:13 just as also in Revelation 1:8 and 21:6. If this is the case then the phrase “I am coming quickly” refers to God going into action through Jesus.

Although this is difficult, I see the second explanation as rather weak and so I favour the first explanation and application to Jesus, but as no proof of the Trinity or that he is Almighty God, but rather, it indicates that this divine title meaning that Jesus is “the whole extent of a thing i.e. in its entirety—a totality” has been applied to him as Messiah and that Alpha and Omega is just one of the many divine titles that have been applied to Jesus as Messiah (please see the next chapter).

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Responding to Other Trinitarian ​

Claims about Jesus​

In terms of Jesus’ relationship to God this chapter will analyse what is meant by the fact that he has certain God-like characteristics. These concern:

• Jesus’ divine titles
• “Yahweh” texts as applied to Jesus
• Jesus’ right to forgive sins
• His ability to perform miracles
• His authority above that of any other man
• His exact representation of God’s character
• His claim to be “the Son of God”
• That the Jewish shema cannot be split to include Jesus in the godhead

Is Jesus Almighty God Because He Now​

Has Divine Titles?​

“LORD OF LORDS AND KING OF KINGS”

“King of kings” is a title that even Artaxerxes of Persia bore (Ezra 7:12). Because Jesus is the agent of God, he naturally bears some of the titles of God. This is similar to the angel of the Lord who carried the divine name (Gen. 18; Ex. 23:21). This principle of agency allows Jesus to carry, in Revelation 17:14, the title of “Lord of lords and King of kings” which is God’s title in 1 Timothy 6:15. Hence the bearing of such a divine title does not make Jesus the Almighty God as is also shown throughout the New Testament.



JESUS AS SHEPHERD AND SAVIOUR

Jesus is indeed “the good shepherd” (John 10:11, 14), “the great shepherd of the sheep” (Heb. 13:20), and “the Shepherd and Guardian of our souls” (1 Pet. 2:25). However, his being all these is in a representative way just as with other men used by God at earlier times (Judges 3:9 NAB also see LXX; Neh. 9:27 ESV). In fact, God, who is the Father, is the ultimate saviour and the ultimate shepherd.



OTHER DESCRIPTIONS OF GOD THAT ARE APPLIED TO JESUS

Just as Yahweh viewed himself as the husband of Israel, so, too, Jesus is described as the husband of his disciples—the bride. Obviously, this does not mean that Jesus is Yahweh.

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Does the Application of the Yahweh Texts to Jesus​

Mean That Jesus Is Yahweh?​

The New Testament writers either quote from the Hebrew Scripture texts concerning Yahweh or take a thought from them and apply them to Jesus. Trinitarians make the assumption that this must mean that Jesus is Yahweh and therefore he is God. Examples are:

1) Romans 10:13: “For ‘everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved.’”

The context of 10:13 is in 10:9 which shows that the reference is to Jesus: “If you publicly declare that ‘word in your own mouth’ that Jesus is Lord…you will be saved.” Then verse 13 quotes from Joel 2:32 where the divine name YHWH is used. The context shows that Paul’s intention was to apply the thought in Joel to Jesus. However, this does not mean that Paul is saying that Jesus is Yahweh, but rather that to call on the name of Jesus as God’s representative has the same effect as calling upon Yahweh—i.e. for one’s salvation.

2) 1 Peter 2:3: “...if indeed you have tasted that the Lord is good.”



The context (vs. 4) of this text shows that Peter applies it to Jesus, although it is a clear allusion to Psalm 34:8 which says: “Taste and see that Yahweh is good” (NJB). As with Paul, Peter’s application of a Yahweh text to Jesus simply implies that he functions as Yahweh in the Old Testament representational sense. Concerning this verse F. Hort wrote in his The First Epistle of St Peter. p.104:

St Peter is not here making a formal quotation, but merely borrowing OT language, and applying it in his own manner. His use though different from the Psalm, is not at variance with it, for it is through the kindness of the Son that the Father is clearly made known to Christians: ‘he that hath seen me hath seen the Father.’”

So, in reading all of the above texts from the Hebrew Scriptures one has to be careful not to jump to wrong conclusions when such passages are quoted by the New Testament writers.

Is Jesus Almighty God because He Forgave Sins?​

The forgiveness of sins is indeed ultimately the prerogative of God. So, doesn’t the forgiving of sins by Jesus mean that he is God? Certainly not! The fact is that God can grant others to forgive sins. In the following case the Jews made faulty assumptions when:

“…[Jesus] said to the paralytic…‘your sins are forgiven.’ And behold, some of the scribes said to themselves, ‘This man is blaspheming.’ But Jesus knowing their thoughts, said … ‘that you may know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins…When the crowds saw it [the healing], they were afraid and they glorified God who had given such authority to men” (Matt. 9:2-8).

Certainly, the fully human Jesus had been granted by God to forgive sins. In turn Jesus granted the same prerogative to his disciples; although they were clearly not the Almighty God. Indeed, Jesus said: “If you [the disciples] forgive the sins of anyone, they are forgiven” (John 20:23).

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Is Jesus Almighty God Because​

He Performed Miracles?​

Because Psalm 107:23-31 shows that Yahweh calmed a stormy wind after individuals had cried out to Him, Trinitarians state that Jesus must be God because he, too, calmed the storm on the Sea of Galilee. This argument, however, could only prove that Jesus is Yahweh—a thought that scholarly Trinitarians could not agree with! However, the Scriptures show that God provided the power for Jesus to use for all such miraculous works.



MIRACLES WERE NOT DONE IN JESUS’ OWN POWER

Prophets of the Old Testament times also performed miracles, including Elijah’s stopping of any rainfall for three and a half years. Some even brought back to life individuals who had died. None of them did this as God. But God did these things through them. Similarly, for Jesus when he said: “I have shown you many good works from the Father” (John 10:32) and “the Father who dwells in me does his works” (John 14:10b). So, the Apostle Peter could later speak of: “Jesus of Nazareth, a man attested to you by God with mighty works and wonders and signs that God did through him in your midst” (Acts 2:22, 23). Later, the apostle Peter variously was granted ability to resurrect Dorcas, to read Ananias’ heart, and to heal a lame man (Acts 9:36-41; 5:1-5; 3:3, 6, 7). As with Jesus, all these miracles were performed with God’s power. None of these individuals needed to actually be God to perform them. So clearly it is misguided to use the miracles of Jesus in an attempt to prove that Jesus was the Almighty God.



JESUS’ RESTRICTED ABILITY

In contrast to God, Jesus did not have the ability to perform all miracles at all times as shown on one occasion in Nazareth. According to Mark’s gospel account:

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“[Jesus] could do no mighty work there [in Nazareth], except that He laid His hands on a few sick people and healed them. And He marvelled because of their unbelief. Then He went about the villages in a circuit, teaching” (Mark 6:5-6).

Does Jesus’ Authority Mean He Is Almighty God?​

In the Sermon on the Mount Jesus uses the phrase, “but I say to you” rather than the phrase “this is what the LORD says” which phrase was used by most of the prophets. This showed Jesus’ greater authority than any past prophet—“a prophet like” Moses (Deut. 18:15). However, this was because of his position as the ultimate Messiah and not because of any supposed hint that he was really the Almighty God.

Is Jesus the Almighty God Because He​

Exactly Represents God’s Character?​

The writer to the Hebrews shows us the glory of Jesus because he reflects God’s character: “And He is the radiance of His glory and the exact representation (Gk charakter) of His nature (Gk hypostasis)” (Heb. 1:3 NASB). Or “He is the reflection of God’s glory and bears the impress of God’s own being” (NJB). One cannot be God if one reflects or radiates God’s glory. Neither can one be God if one perfectly represents God’s character. Jesus is one being and God in His entirety is another being. Although Trinitarians treat the word hypostasis as meaning “essence” in the ontological sense, yet the writer here may have used it in the sense of substantial qualities (Thayer’s Greek/English Lexicon) or traits e.g. compassion. This would better fit the Hebrew mindset which rarely worked along ontological lines, but rather described God according to His qualities (Ex. 34:6; Rom. 1:20). So, The New Century Version renders the passage as: “The Son reflects the glory of God and shows exactly what God is like.” This is similar to Jesus’ statement that, “he who has seen me has seen the Father” (John 14:9), that is, a person will come to know what God is like in His character by observing Jesus in his character.

Does the Claim to Be “Son of God”​

Mean that Jesus Is God?​

In the New Testament, blasphemy often has the sense of impious or irreverent speech against God, and the penalty in Israel for this crime was that of stoning. So, when Jesus had said, “I am the Son of God”:

“The Jews picked up stones again to stone Him. Jesus answered them, “I have shown you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you going to stone me?” The Jews answered him, “It is not for a good work that we are going to stone you, but for blasphemy, because you, being a man, make yourself God.” Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said you are gods’? “If he called them gods to whom the word of God came - and the Scripture cannot be broken - do you say of him whom the Father consecrated and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming’, because I said, ‘I am the Son of God?” (John 10:31-36 ESV).

Indeed, because the Jews here accuse Jesus of “blasphemy, because you, being a man, make yourself God” Trinitarians often understand this to mean that Jesus was actually claiming to be Almighty God. However, such Trinitarians have not realized that these particular Jews of the first century seem to be unaware of how the terms “God” and “Son of God” are used in a representational sense in the Scriptures. This situation required that Jesus, using Psalm 82, explain to them that this is not blasphemy, but that he does indeed fulfil the role of Messiah as Son of God. If even the unjust judges of Israel were called “gods” then by his works he, Jesus, has every right to be called “the Son of God.” There was no misguided notion that he was actually the Almighty God as the rest of the Scriptures testify.

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Can the Jewish Shema Be Split?​

In recent times some Trinitarian theologians have proposed that the Shema, that is, “Hear, O Israel: The LORD (Heb. Yahweh) our God (Heb. Elohim), the LORD (Yahweh) is one” (Deut. 6:4 NIV) also “Hear, Israel, Yahweh our God, Yahweh is unique” (LEB) when applied by the Apostle Paul in 1 Corinthians 8:6 can be used to prove that Jesus is God just as the Father is God, and therefore Paul has split the Shema when he says:

“…for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist.” (1 Cor. 8:6)

However, the phrase “one Lord, Jesus Christ” focuses on the fact the Jesus is the one Lord Messiah in contrast to Him who is the one Lord God—“one God, the Father.” Hence there is no splitting of the Shema. It applies entirely to the “one God, the Father” as the Lord God—Yahweh; whereas Jesus is the one Lord Messiah. These individuals are always differentiated. In fact, Emeritus professor James Dunn asks:

…whether Paul did indeed intend to ‘split the shema’. The one God is not only referred to as ‘the Father’ but is also seen as the source and origin of everything, and as the goal toward whom believers should direct themselves; whereas the one Lord is referred to in terms of agency, the mediating agency through whom all things and believers have effective being. Did the First Christians Worship Jesus, p. 109.

YAHWEH AND JESUS ARE DIFFERENT BEINGS

The Old Testament defines Yahweh alone as God. He is never described as a two or three-person-being, but always as a singular person: “Yahweh declared to my Lord, ‘Take your seat at my right hand till I have made your enemies your footstool” (Ps. 110:1 NJB). Clearly, Yahweh is a separate being from David’s Lord, who is recognized by all as the foretold Messiah. Furthermore, the Hebrew word used here for “lord” is adoni which is never applied to God Almighty but only to humans and angels. Charles Bigg, DD. Canon of Christ Church, and Regius Professor of Ecclesiastical History, Oxford. ICC, 1910, p. 99, 127 stated that:

Ps.110 prohibited the apostles from identifying Jesus with Yahweh ... We are not to suppose that the Apostles identified Jesus with Jehovah. There were passages which made this impossible, Ps 110:1. Mal.3:1.

Bigg also reported F. J. A. Hort as saying “It would be rash to say that the NT identifies Jesus with Yahweh.” Apparently, Professor James Dunn spoke of: “such heretical formulations as ‘Jesus is Yahweh’!” So clearly, just as the Jews always believed, the Shema shows that God is a singular person.



JESUS IS THE AGENT OF THE ONE ONLY TRUE GOD

Jesus, as a believer in the Jewish Shema, confirmed its statement that God is a singular person. At the same time, he confirmed that God was quite separate from himself as God’s commissioned agent when he said:

“Father … this is eternal life, that they know you the only true God, and Jesus Christ [Messiah] whom you have sent” (John 17:1, 3).

In time the Apostle Paul elaborated on this by informing us that, “…there is One God and one mediator, the man Messiah Jesus” (1 Tim. 2:5). Here, Paul is making the same distinction between the “One God” and Jesus as his pre-eminent agent.

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