The argument could be made that the first part of this verse, “not that anyone has seen the Father” , seems to indicate seeing with the eyes just as John 5:37 does. The very next words of “except he who is from God” is an exception to, “not that anyone has seen the Father”. Then “ he who is from God” identifies Jesus, who is from God. Normally humans cannot see spirit except God opens their eyes to see. Elisha and his servant apparently were enabled to see spirit. 2 Kings 6:15-17
Did Jesus have the same or greater ability as Elisha ? Strongs G3708 includes sight by mind or eye, which is the same for both uses of the word seen. To choose whether by sight of eye or mind is inconclusive Unless the text leans one way or the other. Do we know all the abilities of Jesus which his God made possible? Do we know enough to say emphatically that Jesus did not actually see his Father ? As far as one doing evil not seeing God, evil is not even mentioned here and would certainly not apply to Jesus.
I thank you Bvenski for you valuable input to this question and hope to have more viewpoints from others here on Simply Christian.