General Contra Amillennialism

benadam1974

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Nov 15, 2020
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1. Satan cannot be currently deceiving and not deceiving the whole world at the same time (1 John 5:19; 2 Cor. 4:4; Rev. 12:9; 20:3).

2. Paul says it is a heresy to say we are reigning now (1 Cor. 4:8).
Nowhere is Christian conversion described as being “beheaded” (Rev 20:4).

3. BDAG defines “came to life” in Rev 20:4-5 as “dead persons who return to life, become alive again (Matt. 9:18; Acts 9:41; 20:12).” Also see Revelation 2:8, Jesus “was dead, but came to life” (same Greek word).

4. It’s impossible to switch the meaning of “resurrection” (anastasis), to make “the first resurrection” non-literal and the second resurrection a literal resurrection from literal death. In general, Christian resurrection is “from the dead” (Luke 20:35; Acts 4:2) as opposed to “of the dead,” for non-Christians (Matt 22:31; Heb 6:2; 1Cor 15).
NOTE: the noun “resurrection” is always used by John to refer to a literal coming back to life again!

5. In Revelation when a number is associated with the word “year” or “years,” e.g., one thousand years, this linguistic combination always refers to a literal duration of time.
From the book “The Coming Kingdom” by Woods:

John knows how to use indefinite concepts when he wants to. In verse 8, John uses the simile “like the sand of the seashore” to describe the number of those involved in the final rebellion. Yet such a conspicuous figurative expression is absent in any of John’s six uses of “thousand years.” Moreover, John, in Revelation 20: 3 says Satan will be released for “a short time” (mikros chronos). Had John wanted to indicate the Millennium will last “a long time” it would have been very easy for him to do so. In fact, other biblical writers use the expression “long time” (polys chronos). For example, Matthew employs it in order to depict the lengthy yet chronologically undefined period of time between Christ’s advents (Matt. 25: 19). Here, however, John does not employ this expression but instead provides a specific number.